eglantine_br (eglantine_br) wrote,
eglantine_br
eglantine_br

Tears as a sign of -- what

I have been thinking back over my story, and realize that there is a lot of manly weeping in it. My understanding is that Englishmen of the 18th century, even the end of it, did not regard tears with shame.

100 years later, by the cusp of WW1, things seem to have been very different. Lots of the upper lip going on. Yet it is my assertion, that guys, and causes for weeping had not changed all that much.

Can anyone who has done more research speak on this?
Tags: real life, research question
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    They are now saying that Marlowe will be credited with collaborating with Shakespeare on several plays. You guys have probably seen this and read…

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